I own two houses. One is a farmhouse that I visit on weekends and the other is in the city that I and my family live in. Is it correct to treat both these residences as self-occupied?
No. In such a case,
one of the houses of which the income is higher as compared to the other, shall
be treated as a self-occupied house, while the other would be treated as a
deemed let out. For the latter, the annual value shall be taken as the higher
of the municipal value and the amount of rent it is expected to yield.
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